Posted by
Andrews on Friday, March 21, 2008 4:40:00 PM
I have a very short question:
If a political party disenfranchised two entire states for violating party rules and also appointed a few hundred party insiders as superdelegates whose votes are equal to the votes of several tens or hundreds of thousands of voters each, would you call that the party of "the people"?
Isn't it time that we gave up the populist myth of the Democrat party and admit it is the party of the unions (labor, government and educational), the special interest groups and the entrenched machine politics of big cities?