Posted by
Andrews on Thursday, April 23, 2009 3:00:32 PM
I have asked it before, but why is it whenever the left wants to slur a conservative, they imply that he is gay? If the left thinks homosexuality is a morally neutral choice, then why do they use it as an insult, as they seem to be doing by dubbing tea parties "tea bagging"? I brought this up before, but I still don't understand it, for a party that claims to be accepting of homosexuality, they sure do seem to think it is quite an effective insult. If someone used the"n-word" as an insult, would you think he was racially tolerant, or a bigot? So why does the left use "gay" as a slur? Gay Democrats may want to ask whether their party really does care for them, or simply sees them as an opportunity to garner votes by throwing them a few bones, all the while quietly snickering at them. (Then again, it would be nothing new,
I have often argued the left is
rather condescending towards other minorities as well, and completely unconcerned that their much ballyhooed "help" often
does more harm than good. It seems all their "tolerance" and "compassion" is all about gaining advantage, and runs about as deep as a saucer.)